"He that oppresseth the poor to increase his riches, and he that giveth to the rich, shall surely come to want"
I looked up in blueletterbible.org H5414 which is the word "giveth" and also the Hebrew text from M.L Kohen's channel on youtube, here's the word per word translation I copied:
one-oppressing poor-one to-increase to-him
one-giving to-rich-one only to-poverty
עֹשֵֽׁק דָּל לְהַרְבּוֹת לוֹ נֹתֵן לְעָשִׁיר אַךְ־
לְמַחְסֽוֹר
I'm not an expert and I don't even speak hebrew. So to the extent of my limitation, wouldn't it make more sense if we put the translation like this?
"He that oppresseth the poor to increase the riches that's to be passed over to the rich, shall surely come to want"
Cause why is it bad to give to the rich? What's the context? Solomon was rich, surely he got it given from other people. He's not a gold miner, he's not a farmer, he's not a builder, etc
-----------------
Edit: "He that oppresseth the poor to accumulate for the rich, shall surely come to want", what do you think?
